We should assume, and I believe always have, that the Soviets used chemical weapons in Europe prior to the nuclear exchange. We should assume that the use of chemical weapons would be dictated by Soviet perception of advantage. Perhaps they don't use chemicals against the West Germans in 1996 because the other Western Allies are still on the sidelines. It's hard to say how things would shape up once the Anglo-Americans get involved. I'm certain the Soviets would use chemicals in Poland, although I can't say how that would play out for them without investing some real time and energy.
The Soviets and the Chinese start the Sino-Soviet War with darned significant chemical exchanges. We should expect that the Soviets would use their chemical weapons in accordance with doctrine, more or less. We should expect that the Chinese will retaliate in a manner that fits their needs. Since chemical contamination slows everything down, and since the Chinese possess the ability to respond in kind, the Soviets probably find that use of chemicals on the front lines is not to their advantage. The same probably is true in Iran, once the Iranians begin to retaliate with chemical weapons. (If the Iranians experience any technical difficulties, it's not hard to see the West or China providing needed assistance.)
The Pact probably uses chemical weapons in the Balkans. Again, how this shapes up depends a good deal on how effectively the Romanians and Jugoslavs hurt the Pact back.
Webstral
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