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Old 08-30-2010, 10:15 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by simonmark6 View Post
The fact that France has nukes is probably irrelevant in the Soviet's calculations. After all, they launched nukes at the USA and were obliterated in return. Any payload the French can add to the party isn't going to make much difference. All they'll probably do is end up nuking places twice.

Another calculation the Soviets miht have made was that it was worth crippling the only neutral nation capable of producing nuclear weapons. In fact, if you follow the 2300AD timeline, they should have nuked them more so that they wouldn't have turned out as top dogs.
Yep, those are valid points...like I said, it's just one of those things that I've always wondered about when I have too much time on my hands (such as when I'm stuck at work on a Bank Holiday)

I also like the scenario proposed on the etranger website, which also offers a possible answer to the question:

"France staying out of World War III, meant she was not adversely affected till the nuclear exchanges of November-December 1997. During this period French ports and oil facilities were struck. France asked, and was given permission, to transit German airspace. The hope was that France would enter the war on the side of NATO. CoFAS responded with the ‘pre-strategic’ ASMP strikes against selected Soviet targets. For every strike against France, one Soviet target was hit. The point had been made France would stay out of the war if left alone."

Full text can be found here:

http://www.users.globalnet.co.uk/~dh...ical/PGAA1.htm

Cheers
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