[Legbreaker]

I think what is being ignored here is the German requirements issued which resulted in the G11, which it met, and exceeded so well.
Forget for a moment what we all know about T2K history. Put yourself in the position of the decision makers in the early to mid 90's, and even more so in the position of those who knew the offensive against Poland was coming. The G11 with it's MUCH greater ammo carrying capability (both magazine and rounds per man), not to mention greater accuracy (due to a number of reasons, not least it's rapid burst speed), is the MUCH better weapon than the G41.
Germany could not rely on Nato to support it's move eastward - take Italy and France as examples of what may have happened (especially the latter since Italy had that Greek alliance thing going). Therefore given they had absolutely no guarantee anyone would support their aggressive act, they HAD to rely solely on their own inherent strength to win. Every possible advantage had to be taken without regard to the ammunition their apparent allies were using.
5.56mm vs 4.7cls simply doesn't come into it until Germany were on the ropes and had to call for Nato assistance in late 1996. To claim otherwise to to essentially say the Germans planed to fail right from the beginning.

Yes, the G41 was produced for the supporting units, BUT that was only because the G11 in comparison was MUCH more expensive. It also allowed ammunition factories to focus on producing 4.7cls for the more effective front line units who desperately needed resupply much more often than clerks, MPs, truck drivers, aircraft mechanics, medics and so forth. Any 5.56mm (along with other calibres such as 7.62 and 9mmP) could be sourced from aboard if decades old stores did not suffice.

Until the 90's, Germany had hardly any 5.56mm weapons, therefore they really didn't need any stockpiles (the US, Britain, etc on the other hand, all Nato members and not to be relied upon due to German aggression). Given that fact, isn't it sensible they'd focus squarely on producing the calibre their combat troops needed most, over and above that used by supporting units? Given that 4.7cls production HAD to be greater (prior to the destruction of the factories) doesn't it make MUCH more sense for the G11 to take precedence over the G41?

Note that the above all presumes a V1.0 timeline rather than 2.x. In 2.x, it's likely events would have mirrored reality quite closely with the G11 only available in extremely limited numbers, the G41 ditched almost entirely, and the G3 soldiering onward for a few more years as the standard infantry rifle.